[Article]The Relationship Between Grace and Sin.

People have portrayed Grace in funny ways, such as saying the believer does/can not sin, he can only do wrong; due to lack of understanding of 1John3:9, and 1John 5:18.

The epistle clearly addressed,
1 Corinthians 15:34 KJV
Awake to righteousness, and sin not; for some have not the knowledge of God: I speak this to your shame.

If the believer can't sin, there won't be a need for that. Writing to believers, Paul said, "sin not".

So, does Grace foster sin?

Evidently not. Grace teaches, and instructs against sin.

Titus 2:11-12 KJV
For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men, [12] Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;

Therefore, bad works or wrong acts are not supposed to be found among believers.

1 Corinthians 5:1-3 KJV
It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife. [2] And ye are puffed up, and have not rather mourned, that he that hath done this deed might be taken away from among you. [3] For I verily, as absent in body, but present in spirit, have judged already, as though I were present, concerning him that hath so done this deed,

Paul rebuked the church for pampering a sinner, and judged the sinner. So you see, Grace is not a/the license to sin.

Does Grace send the believer who sins into condemnation and guilt? No.
Should a believer feel inconvenient or unhappy after/before sinning? Yes. It shows he is aware of the right thing, and that he is not pleased doing the wrong thing.
But does God condemn him to guilt? No.
What then brings condemnation to man? The devil through his mind.
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1 John 3:20-21 KJV
For if our heart condemn us, God is greater than our heart, and knoweth all things. [21] Beloved, if our heart condemn us not, then have we confidence toward God.

After sin, we have our confidence in God. We repent (change of mind) and resolve for the right thing because we are God(ly) people. It is because we have God, that we choose repentance.

Why was there Grace? To point a finger at man, or to help him out from sin?

Grace was the perfect solution for man's sin (before God). Hence, God sent Jesus. Jesus brought Grace, in fact, He came as Grace. John 1:17. It was that Grace that got us saved. Ephesians 2:5,8.

Does Grace reduce when a man sins?

Romans 6:1-2 KJV
What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? [2] God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?

"abound" means to make increase. Does sin make Grace increase? No. Neither does it make it decrease. (NB: If there is anywhere with the word 'increase' used in respect to 'grace', it is a function of man increasing (growing) in it, not the 'Grace' itself". Jesus is the embodiment of God's grace John 1:14. To say sin can reduce Grace is to say Jesus can be reduced.

Hence in Romans 6:2, Paul said 'No'. But it is not expected of who is dead to sin to choose to live by sin(ning) any longer.

Grace tells us our reality, and instructs us not to "live longer therein" in sin(ning).

What happens to Grace when there is sin?

Romans 5:20 KJV
Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:

Where sin had abounded, Grace much more abounded. Where sin ABOUNDS, Grace MUCH MORE abounds. The supply of Grace is more in abundance than that of sin. That is why it could have saved a man from sin, initially (Salvation). Grace is effectual in its (His) job.

"So the Grace that is much more available, is it to encourage the believer to sin?" if you ask this question in your mind, it shows you have not concentrated from the start of the post.

What is the work of Grace? He saved us from sin, Ephesians 2:6,8. How would what saved us from sin tell us to continue therein?

What is the work of Grace?
Titus 2:11-12 KJV
For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men, teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;

Grace teaches us to deny ungodliness, any form of sin!

So what would be the function of Grace that "much more abound" when sin ABOUNDS? To teach us to depart from sin!
Grace would teach us to deny, ignore, run from, and not take thought of; sin!

Romans 5:20 does not show the super-aboundance of Grace as a foster to sin; the presence of Grace rather, is surplus to counter the works of sin.

So now, "Do we continue in sin so that Grace will abound?" No. As much as Grace does not increase, a believer's sin shows a work against Grace and not in support of it.

Sin does not make grace show a work of Grace. Grace is rather shown, by the believer ignoring the work of sin and laying hold on doing righteousness. Because, one who is dead to sin, is is not expected to live therein (vs 2).

Romans 5:20-21 KJV
Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: that as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

Whereever there is sin, Grace is shown (made to reign) by righteous deeds of the man in Christ.

So, does Grace permit sin? No.
Does sin depletes Grace? No.
How is Grace acknowledged? By acting like one who is righteous indeed.
So does sin affect salvation (which is a function of Grace)? No. "It is not of works lest any man should boast".

Grace is revealed in the face of sin by using the victory in Christ Jesus.

I call you blessed.
Mosobalaje M. Abimbola.